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$(f_n)$ sequence of differentiable functions on $[0,1]$ and converge pointwise to $0$.

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Let $(f_n)$ sequence of differentiable functions on $[0,1]$ converging pointwise to $0$. Suppose

$|f'_n(x)| \leqslant 2015 + \cos(x)$$\forall x \in [0,1]$ and $\forall n$. Show that $(f_n)$ converge uniformly to $0$.

''Proof''

As supposed, $|f'_n(x)| \leqslant 2015 + \cos(x)$. We can rewrite it:

$|f'_n(x)| \leqslant 2015 + \cos(x) \leqslant 2016$ as $\cos(x)\leqslant1$

Since $(f_n)$ is a sequence of differentiable functions and the derivative is bounded, $(f_n)$ is Lipschitz. Hence, $\forall x,y \in [0,1]$:

$|f_n(x)-f_n(y)| \leqslant 2016|x-y|=\epsilon/3$

Moreover, as $(f_n)$ is Lipschitz, it implies that $(f_n)$ is uniformly continuous on $[0,1]$: $\forall \epsilon>0$$\exists \delta>0$ such that $\forall x,y \in [0,1]:$

$|x-y|<\delta \Rightarrow |f_n(x)-f_n(y)| \leqslant \epsilon/3$

And we want to show that $\forall \epsilon >0 \exists$$n_0$ such that $\forall n\geqslant n_0 \forall x \in [0,1]$:

$|f_n(x)|<\epsilon$.

Then i don't really see how to apply the pointwise convergence(i.e create kind a subdivision on $[0,1]$ or?) and conclude the proof using triangular inequality.

P.S Im stydying Analysis I right now so if you could explain with much details as possible it would be kind from your part. Thanks in advance ;)


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