Quantcast
Channel: Active questions tagged real-analysis - Mathematics Stack Exchange
Viewing all articles
Browse latest Browse all 8465

Finding a function in the unit sphere of a functional subspace with a couple of properties

$
0
0

Preliminary:

A={f $\in C(X); f(a)=0$} is a banach space with norm the following:

$\Vert f\Vert=sup\vert f(x)-f(y)\vert; x,y \in X$

( X is Hausdorff and compact space. 'a' is a point in X)

$\tilde f (x,y)= f(x)-f(y)$

$\tilde A=\{\tilde f; f\in A\}$ is banach space with sup norm ( $\Vert \tilde f\Vert=sup \vert \tilde f(x,y)\vert ; x,y \in X$)

notice that $\tilde A $ is not a algebra

for any x,y in X where $x\neq y, \tilde A$ satisfy the following property:

for any $ \varepsilon > 0 $ andopen neighborhoods U, V of x, y There exists a $\tilde f$ in the unit sphere of $\tilde A$ such that $\tilde f(x,y)=1=\Vert \tilde f\Vert$ and $\vert\tilde f(z,t)\vert\leq\epsilon$ ;

z,t $\in U \cup V $

Problem:

Now, let $x_1,y_1$ are in X and $\tilde f $is in the unit sphere of$\tilde A $ such that $0\leq\tilde f(x_1,y_1)<1$ then there exists $\tilde h$ in the unit sphere of $\tilde A$ such that $\tilde h (x_1,y_1)=1$ and $\Vert\tilde h- \tilde f\Vert\leq 1-\tilde f(x_1,y_1)$

My proof:

Using Oryshon lemma there exists a function of g in C(X) such that $0\leq g\leq 1$ and $g(x_1)=1, g(y_1)=0,g(a)=0$ so $\tilde g $ is in the unit sphere of $\tilde A $ and $\tilde g(x_1,y_1)=1$

Let's consider the function of h like the following :

$h=f+(1-\tilde f(x_1,y_1))g$, clearly $\tilde h$ is in $\tilde A$ and $\tilde h(x_1,y_1)=1$ and $\Vert \tilde h-\tilde f\Vert <1-\tilde f(x_1,y_1)$ but $\tilde h$ is not in the unit sphere of $\tilde A$

Could someone help me?


Viewing all articles
Browse latest Browse all 8465

Trending Articles



<script src="https://jsc.adskeeper.com/r/s/rssing.com.1596347.js" async> </script>