If $x>1$, then there is a sequence of primes $p_1, p_2, ...$ (finite or infinite) so that $x=\prod_i(1+1/p_i)$. How one can prove this? Is there a method to find such sequense (In the finite case)? Is this still true when $0<x<1$?
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If $x>1$, then there is a sequence of primes $p_1, p_2, ...$ (finite or infinite) so that $x=\prod_i(1+1/p_i)$. How one can prove this? Is there a method to find such sequense (In the finite case)? Is this still true when $0<x<1$?