This seems a very hard ODE that I couldn't solve.
It is from Zorich Mathematical Analysis so I guess there must be a somewhat-enlightening solution.
Though my half-attempt is here:
$$y'(x)=\cos x\int \cos x^2 dx$$$$dy=\cos x(\int \cos x^2 dx) dx$$$$y=\int \cos x(\int \cos x^2 dx)dx+C$$
Editted after 4 hours:
By using trigonometric series for $\cos x^2$ and $\cos x$
We get $$y(x)=\int \cos x\int \cos x^2 dx= \int \cos x\sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^kx^{4k+1}}{(2k)!(4k+1)} dx$$$$y(x)=\sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^k \int x^{4k+1}\cos x dx}{(2k)!(4k+1)}$$
By adopting a power series approach again,
$$y(x)=\sum_{i,j=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^j x^{2j+4k+2}}{(2k)!(2j)!(4k+1)(2j+4k+2)}$$
Now, my question is, is there a closed form for this? Or even, a better approach?