Let $X \subset L^1(\mathbb{R})$ a closed linear subspace satisfying \begin{align}X\subset \bigcup_{p>1} L^p(\mathbb{R})\end{align} Show that $X\subset L^{p_0}(\mathbb{R})$ for some $p_0>1.$
I guess the problem is that in infinite measure spaces the inclusion $L^p\subset L^q$ only holds for $p=q$. Is it maybe possbile to apply Baire's Theorem in some way?