I've been looking at proofs of
Euler's Sine Expansion, that is$$\frac{\sin\left(x\right)}{x}=\prod_{k = 1}^{\infty}\left(1-\frac{x^{2}}{k^{2}\pi^{2}}\right)$$All the proofs seem to rely on Complex Analysis and Fourier Series.
Is there any more elementary proof ?.