Is the intuition behind this statement, based on : 1. The definition that a gradient is perpendicular to the level curves2. Since the level sets are the same for both functions, the corresponding gradients are parallel to each other?
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Is the intuition behind this statement, based on : 1. The definition that a gradient is perpendicular to the level curves2. Since the level sets are the same for both functions, the corresponding gradients are parallel to each other?