For $n\rightarrow\infty$, $\log n\rightarrow\infty$. So, $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty}{\frac{1}{\log n}}=0.$
But I am unable to write the proof of it by using $(\epsilon, \delta)$ method.
Please help me out.
Thank you.
For $n\rightarrow\infty$, $\log n\rightarrow\infty$. So, $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty}{\frac{1}{\log n}}=0.$
But I am unable to write the proof of it by using $(\epsilon, \delta)$ method.
Please help me out.
Thank you.